NRNP-6552-16 Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health 2021 Final Exam

NRNP-6552-16 Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health 2021 Final Exam

NRNP-6552-16 Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health 2021 Final Exam answers

NRNP-6552-16 Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health 2021 Final Exam

Order NRNP-6552-16 Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health 2021 Final Exam

Question 1

Your patient is pregnant and has three cats. You educate her that she should have someone else clean the litter box as there is an infection that can spread through cat feces that can be harmful to the unborn baby. The infection is called:

A. E. Coli
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Cat-scratch fever
D. Tetanus


Question 2

Women who have a history of immediate hypersensitivity to __________ should not receive the 4-valent or 9-valent HPV series.

A. Milk products
B. Eggs
C. Cats
D. Yeast


Question 3

Physiologic methods of contraception include:

A. Abstinence
B. Coitus interruptus
C. Lactational amenorrhea method
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C


Question 4

All of the following are disadvantages of Combined Oral Contraceptives except:

A. The need for daily pill taking
B. The ongoing cost of the method for some individuals
C. Side effects for some women
D. Reduction in the risk of some types of cancer


Question 5

The most frequent causal finding(s) on laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain is/are:

A. Endometriosis
B. Adhesions
C. Absence of pathologic condition
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 6

Nonlatex condoms:

A. Fit tighter on the penis than latex condoms
B. Come in a variety of colors
C. Have an increased risk of breakage or slippage during intercourse than latex condom
D. Lead to a greater incidence of allergies than latex condoms


Question 7

The copper IUD is a T shaped device and

A. Is made entirely of copper
B. Is made of polyethylene with copper wire around the stem and arms
C. Releases hormones from the copper to help prevent pregnancy
D. Does not really have copper; it is just called the copper IUD


Question 8

Your patient, Autumn, is 9 weeks pregnant and is asking you if she should have a flu shot this year as it is flu season. You tell her:

A. She should wait until the second trimester and then have the flu shot.
B. She can have the flu shot anytime during the pregnancy
C. Flu shots are contraindicated during pregnancy
D. The flu shot should be administered in the delivery room as soon as the baby is delivered


Question 9

A woman who is pregnant should never lift more than ___________ during pregnancy.

A. 10 pounds
B. 22 pounds
C. 28 pounds
D. 36 pounds


Question 10

When a woman is pregnant and calculating the last menstrual period (LMP), it should be counted from:

A. The first day of the last period
B. The last day of the last period
C. The middle of the last period
D. None of the above


Question 11

The gold standard for assessing uterine bleeding and diagnosing endometrial cancer is:

A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Transvaginal ultrasound
C. Dilation and curettage
D. CA-125 levels


Question 12

The standard treatment for patients with vulvar cancer regardless of the stage of the disease is:

A. Laser treatment
B. Cryosurgery
C. Surgical resection
D. Topical medication


Question 13

Paula also asks you about the dark line that starts at her sternal notch and goes down toward the genitalia vertically. You tell her that is called _________ and that is normal in pregnancy and may appear due to increasing levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.

A. Linea alba
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea nigra
D. Melanin


Question 14

Vulvovaginitis in the vulva and vagina can be caused by which of the following organisms?

A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. All of the above


Question 15

The following are foods to avoid during pregnancy except:

A. Soy products
B. Unpasteurized milk
C. Raw eggs
D. Raw alfalfa sprouts


Question 16

A woman with a normal BMI of 18.5-24.9 should ideally gain ____________ pounds during pregnancy.

A. 11-20
B. 15-25
C. 25-35
D. 28-40


Question 17

The three trisomies for which testing is offered during the second trimester are:

A. 13. 18, 21
B. 16, 19, 21
C. 3, 9, 19
D. 16, 21, 22


Question 18

The greatest risk factor for ovarian cancer is:

A. Smoking
B. Family history of ovarian cancer in a first-degree relative
C. Taking birth control
D. None of the above


Question 19

When discussing contraception, LARC stands for:

A. Less aggressive reversible contraception
B. Long awaited reversible contraception
C. Long acting reversible contraception
D. None of the above


Question 20

Transvaginal ultrasound can provide information about pregnancy viability _______ weeks after the LMP.

A. 1-2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 12


Question 21

A blood test can help confirm if a woman is beginning menopause. The test measures the level of which of these?

A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Cholesterol


Question 22

Advantages off the Lactational Amenorrhea method include all of the following except:

A. It is readily available
B. It can be used immediately postpartum
C. It is free
D. It is the most effective method of birth control


Question 23

The majority of vulvar malignancies are:

A. Squamous cell carcinomas
B. Basal cell carcinomas
C. Adenocarcinomas
D. Malignant melanomas


Question 24

The bluish hue that the cervix takes on during pregnancy is called:

A. Goodell’s sign
B. Baby Blues sign
C. Cervical ripening sign
D. Chadwick’s sign


Question 25

Ectopic pregnancy involves a pregnancy that implants:

A. Outside of the uterus
B. In the uterus
C. Through in vitro fertilization
D. None of the above


Question 26

A generic prenatal vitamin supplement should be prescribed and should include:

A. Iron, folic acid, and vitamins
B. Mercury, folic acid, and vitamins
C. Vitamins only with no other supplements
D. Iron and Vitamins with no other supplements


Question 27

The first-line medication for ovulation induction in women who do not have PCOS is:

A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Letrozole
C. Pergonal
D. Follistim


Question 28

When using FIGO staging for cancer of the ovary, fallopian tube, and peritoneum, Stage I means:

A. The tumor is confined to the ovaries or fallopian tube(s)
B. The tumor involves one or both ovaries or fallopian tubes with pelvic extension or primary peritoneal cancer
C. The tumor involves one or both ovaries or fallopian tubes, or primary peritoneal cancer, with cytologically and histologically confirmed spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis and/or metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes, and pelvis; has extended to bowel, peritoneum, or lymph nodes
D. Distant metastasis excluding peritoneal metastasis


Question 29

The following are warning signs of pregnancy except:

A. Bleeding more than light spotting
B. Severe abdominal pain
C. Extreme nausea and vomiting
D. Braxton-Hicks contractions


Question 30

In a patient with irritable bowel syndrome, a diet that eliminates ___________ is recommended.

A. Fat
B. Carbohydrates
C. Protein
D. Purine


Question 31

During pregnancy, blood volume:

A. Remains the same as pre-pregnant amounts
B. Increases by 10%
C. Increases by 30-50%
D. Decreases by 20%


Question 32

HPV can be spread through:

A. Skin-to-skin genital contact
B. Only through actual intercourse
C. The air as it is an airborne virus
D. Dirty needles


Question 33

Fetal heart tones can typically be initially heard with a handheld doppler by:

A. 6-8 weeks of pregnancy
B. 10-12 weeks of pregnancy
C. 14-16 weeks of pregnancy
D. 20-24 weeks of pregnancy


Question 34

Urine pregnancy tests are considered to be:

A. Reliable
B. Unreliable
C. Expensive
D. Invasive


Question 35

If a pregnant woman has traveled to areas where tuberculosis is common and is at risk, she should:

A. Take preventive medication
B. Have a tuberculin skin test
C. Terminate the pregnancy
D. Be aware that the baby may be born with an aortic valve disorder


Question 36

With prepackaged lunch meat, hot dogs, pate, and meat spreads there is an increased risk of:

A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Listeriosis
D. Coliform bacteria


Question 37

It is believed that women acquire most of their bone mass

A. As infants
B. In early adolescence
C. In their 20’s
D. In their 50’s


Question 38

Emergency contraception

A. Can be used as an ongoing method of contraception
B. Provides STI protection
C. Is the only method that can be used after intercourse
D. Is available by prescription only


Question 39

A potentially toxic environmental substance is lead. In pregnancy, lead is a neurotoxin and can cause learning deficits and developmental delays. Lead is found in all of the following except:

A. Fish
B. Older homes with lead paint
C. Certain types of pottery
D. Some stained glass


Question 40

WIC is a federally operated assistance program that also offers dietary counseling and provides vouchers for healthy foods for women living at or below 185% of the poverty level. WIC stands for:

A. Women in Care
B. Why I Care
C. Women, Infants, and Children
D. Wonderful Infants and Children


Question 41

DMPA should be administered:

A. Every 4 weeks
B. Every 9 weeks
C. Every 13 weeks
D. Every 24 weeks


Question 42

The number one cause of mortality for both women and men in the United States is:

A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Cardiovascular disease
C. Bone cancer
D. Dementia


Question 43

To reduce risk of illness during pregnancy, fish and shellfish should be:

A. Served raw
B. Cooked thoroughly
C. Served at every meal
D. Encouraged as often as possible

B Question 44

Annabelle is a 17-year-old who came in to see you because she is concerned about a “lump” in her right breast. She first noticed it about a month ago and it has not changed in size since then. On exam you note the mass to be about 2 cm in diameter at about 7:00 on her breast. It feels well-delineated and is freely mobile. There is no nipple discharge. You decide to proceed with imaging. The best diagnostic imaging test for this patient would be:

B. Diagnostic mammography
C. Ultrasound
D. CT scan


Question 45

Osteoporosis is characterized by:

A. Low bone mass
B. Deterioration of bone tissue
C. Disruption of bone architecture
D. All of the above


Question 46

Paula is 30 weeks pregnant and is in your office today. She is very concerned about her stretch marks. She wants to know if there is anything, she can put on them to make them go away. She has seen a few products on infomercials and wonders if they work. You tell her:

A. There are a few products on the market which have proven to be very helpful in making stretch marks disappear
B. Despite advertiser’s claims, there is no magic cream to prevent them or make them go away.
C. Watching weight gain and eating nutritiously can help decrease their number and severity
D. B and C


Question 47

All of the following are barrier methods of contraception except

A. Male condom
B. Female condom
C. Diaphragm
D. Coitus interruptus


Question 48

As women age, adipose tissue is redistributed and begins to accumulate in the:

A. Hips and thighs
B. Breasts
C. Waist
D. Triceps area


Question 49

When taking alendronate (Fosamax) for postmenopausal osteoporosis,

A. It should always be taken with food
B. It should be taken first think in the morning on an empty stomach
C. It should be taken with an 8 oz glass of water
D. B and C


Question 50

Ibandronate (Boniva, a medication for osteoporosis, can be administered:

A. Orally
B. Through an IM injection
C. Intravenously
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C


Question 51

The risk factors (Nuva ring) is:

A. Replaced on a weekly basis
B. Left in place for 21 days and then removed for a week
C. Replaced on a monthly basis
D. Placed in the vagina at least 2 hours prior to intercourse and removed at least 6 hours after intercourse


Question 52

The following are differential diagnoses for pelvic pain that are of gynecologic origin except:

A. Interstitial cystitis
B. Mittelschmerz
C. Fibroids
D. Uterine prolapse


Question 53

While there is no conclusive data on safe doses, caffeine intake during pregnancy should be limited to approximately ____________ mg daily.

A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 400


Question 54

The following are risk factors associated with acquiring HPV except:

A. Nulliparity
B. Early age at first intercourse
C. Having multiple sexual partners
D. Smoking


Question 55

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) is widely known as:

A. Mirena
B. Depo-Provera
C. Mini-pill
D. Nexplanon


Question 56

The following is a type of permanent contraception:

A. Hysteroscopy
B. Vasectomy
C. DMPA injections
D. Emergency contraception


Question 57

The following gonadotropins are responsible for regulating gynecologic organ activities.

A. Testosterone and androgen
B. FSH and progesterone
C. FSH and LH
D. LH and prolactin


Question 58

During the second trimester, a test that is offered is the alpha-fetoprotein test. This test indicates:

A. If the woman will go to full term
B. If the heart has any defects
C. Whether the fetal neural tube has properly fused
D. If the fetus is living


Question 59

Progestin-only contraceptives are generally considered safer for women who:

A. Have a diagnosis of Diabetes
B. Experience Migraines with aura
C. Are 15 or younger
D. Overweight


Question 60

Blood serum pregnancy tests can detect the presence of HCG ________ days after fertilization.

A. 24 hours
B. 1-3 days
C. 3-5 days
D. 8-10 days


Question 61

The following is/are types of assisted reproductive technology:

D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 62

When the cervix softens in pregnancy, this is called:

A. Goodell’s sign
B. Cervical lip sign
C. Mucus plug sign
D. Vulvar sign


Question 63

Laboratory testing that might be indicated to rule out vaginal discharge include:

A. STI testing
B. Wet Mount
C. Endocervical curettage
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 64

All of the following are risk factors for fetal genetic or development abnormalities in maternal, paternal, and family history except:

A. Maternal age equal or greater than 30 years
B. Mother and father related by blood
C. Maternal exposure to toxins
D. Congenital blindness or deafness


Question 65

What factors can cause premature menopause?

A. Smoking
B. Autoimmune disorders
C. A women’s mother had early menopause
D. All of the above


Question 66

Pelvic adhesions can be caused by:

A. Previous surgeries
B. Infection
C. Endometriosis
D. All of the above


Question 67

A complete male evaluation usually includes:

A. Two semen analyses, approximately one hour apart
B. Two semen analyses, approximately one month apart
C. One complete semen analysis
D. A fractionated semen analysis


Question 68

The following is/are absolute contraindication(s) to estrogen use:

A. Known or suspected cancer of the breast
B. History of biliary tract disorder
C. History of uterine or ovarian cancer
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C


Question 69

When assessing fetal heart tones with the doppler, the normal range is:

A. 60-80 BPM
B. 100-120 BPM
C. 120-160 BPM
D. 160-200 BPM


Question 70

In a male, the urethra carries ___________through the penis.

A. Urine
B. Semen
C. Testosterone
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 71

All women should be offered testing for cystic fibrosis carrier status during pregnancy. This test should be done:

A. Only once in a lifetime, as the status will not change
B. With every pregnancy that results in a live birth
C. With every pregnancy, including those that do not result in a live birth
D. Every five years


Question 72

The Tanner scale divides sexual physical maturity into ________ stages

A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Nine


Question 73

Lauren comes into your office stating she thinks she might be pregnant. She missed a period and her breasts are tender. She has also been feeling a little nauseous. On gathering her history, she tells you her LMP was 6/14/2020 and that her periods are very regular on a 28 day cycle. You do a urine HCG and it is positive. Using Nagele’s rule, calculate her estimated due date.

A. 3/15/2021
B. 3/19/2021
C. 3/21/2021
D. 3/28/2021


Question 74

Which type of intrauterine device (IUD) is available?

A. Copper
B. Titanium
C. Hormonal
D. A and C


Question 76

Prior to giving semen for an analysis, a male should be abstinent for:

A. 24 hours prior to the test
B. 2-5 days prior to the test
C. 2 weeks prior to the test
D. None of the above


Question 77

Ovarian reserve testing assesses a woman’s reproductive potential by:

A. Measuring the quality of her remaining oocytes
B. Measuring the quantity of her remaining oocytes
C. Assessing the color and motility of her remaining oocytes
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 78

The following are preventive factors for the development of ovarian cancer:

A. Pregnancy resulting in at least one full-term birth
B. Factors that inhibit ovulation
C. Breastfeeding
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C


Question 79

When using the Bethesda system to categorize epithelial cell abnormalities on pap smear, the term used when squamous cells do not appear completely normal, but it is not possible to determine the cause of the abnormal cells is;



Question 80

Urogenital changes that can occur with menopause include:

A. Vaginal dryness
B. Dyspareunia
C. Urinary incontinence
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C


Question 81

The following vaccine(s) is/are contraindicated in pregnancy:

B. Varicella
C. Tdap
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 83

Men have little or no measurable decline in fertility before age:

A. 35 to 40
B. 45 to 50
C. 55 to 60
D. 65 to 70


Question 84

Taylor just found out she is pregnant. She has irregular periods so she is not exactly sure how far along she is, but she thinks it is pretty early. She asks you about an ultrasound to find out how many weeks she is. You tell her that:

A. Early in the pregnancy is ideal because the ultrasound dating is more accurate than later in the pregnancy
B. She should wait a couple of months as ultrasound dating is most accurate in the second trimester of pregnancy
C. An ultrasound really won’t be able to tell her that information
D. An ultrasound is contraindicated this early in the pregnancy


Question 85

How long is the vaginal ring left in place?

A. 1 week
B. 2 week
C. 3 week
D. 3 month


Question 86

The following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

A. Menarche after the age of 12
B. Nulliparity
C. Menopause at age 55 years or older
D. First full-term pregnancy after age 30


Question 87

The current FDA approval limit for the copper IUD is:

A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years


Question 88

Progestin-only methods are:

A. Likely to improve menstrual symptoms
B. Unlikely to ever cause breakthrough bleeding
C. A and B
D. None of the above


Question 89

Carcinoma of the vulva is most often seen in women who are:

A. Under the age of 30
B. Pre-menopausal
C. Post-menopausal
D. Actively going through menopause


Question 90

The progestin implant is ____________ inserted into the upper arm.

A. A single rod
B. Two rods
C. 6 rods
D. None of the above


Question 91

The quadrivalent HPV vaccine protects against HPV genotypes

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. A, X, C, F
C. 6. 11, 16, 18
D. Beta, magda, gamma, and sigma


Question 92

When presenting the laboratory tests that should be performed during the pregnancy it is important to let the woman know:

A. She must have all the recommended tests done or it can be considered child abuse
B. She is required to have all tests done, except for the HIV test
C. She can “opt out” of any test
D. She should make sure that her partner signs the consent for all the tests done.


Question 94

The following routines can help with sleep patterns:

A. Taking a warm bath
B. Exercising
C. Changing into sleepwear
D. A and C only
E. All of the above


Question 97

When a woman is lying down, it is best to lie _____________ to avoid hypotension and potential syncope.

A. In a supine position
B. On her left side
C. On her right side
D. Face down


Question 98

Sometime in the last month of pregnancy, the fundal height drops slightly. This is called:

A. Lightening
B. Flexing
C. Pubic cradling
D. Hegar’s sign


Question 99

When performing a semen analysis, the following is/are measured:

A. Semen volume
B. Total motility
C. pH
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C


Question 100

When using the TNM system for staging cancers, the letters stand for:

A. Tumor, nodes, melanoma
B. Tumor, nodes, metastasis
C. Tension, number, metastasis
D. Tumor, number, metastasis


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