NRNP 6665: PMHNP Care Across the Lifespan Midterm Exam

NRNP 6665: PMHNP Care Across the Lifespan Midterm Exam

Answers for NRNP 6665: PMHNP Care Across the Lifespan Midterm Exam

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An acute neurological disorder characterized by ataxia, vestibular dysfunction, confusion, and a variety of ocular motility abnormalities is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Korsakoff’s syndrome

 

B.

Alcohol-induced dementia

 

C.

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

 

D.

Idiosyncratic Alcohol Intoxication

C

Which of the following is true about the legal practice of the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner?

 

A.

All have some degree of prescriptive privileges in all states and the District of Columbia.

 

B.

All are considered primary providers in all states and the District of Columbia.

 

C.

All have the ability to manage patients medically within their scope of practice without a collaborative practice agreement.

 

D.

A and B only

C

Which of the following symptoms would suggest an underlying medical issue in a patient experiencing panic-like symptoms?

 

A.

Ataxia

 

B.

Nausea

 

C.

Sweating

 

D.

Palpitations

D

The object of a person’s sexual impulses is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Sexual behavior

 

B.

Sexual orientation

 

C.

Gender identity

 

D.

Sexual identity

A

Antipsychotic medications provide D2 blockade in the mesocortical pathway causing which of the following effects?

 

A.

Reduces negative symptoms

 

B.

Increases extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

 

C.

Causes prolactinemia

 

D.

Reduces positive symptoms

C

A disorder characterized by an emotional response to a stressful event within three months of the stressor is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Insomnia

 

B.

Conduct Disorder

 

C.

Adjustment Disorder

 

D.

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

C

A patient reports having a panic attack several years ago in an elevator and since then has avoided using elevators. This patient meets criteria for which of the following?

 

A.

Social phobia

 

B.

Specific phobia

 

C.

General anxiety disorder unspecified

 

D.

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

B

Antipsychotic medications provide D2 blockade in the mesolimbic system which results in which of the following?

 

A.

Decrease positive symptoms

 

B.

Reduce positive symptoms

 

C.

Increase extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

 

D.

Decrease extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

C

One’s sense of being male or female is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Gender identity

 

B.

Sexual orientation

 

C.

Sexual behavior

 

D.

Sexual preference

A

Individuals with posttraumatic stress disorder show symptoms in which of the following domains?

 

A.

Intrusion symptoms

 

B.

Symptoms of avoidance

 

C.

Increased autonomic arousal

 

D.

All of the above

D

Obsessive -Compulsive Disorder is associated with dysregulation of which of the following neurotransmitters?

 

A.

Dopamine

 

B.

Serotonin

 

C.

Norepinephrine

 

D.

GABA

D

Which of the following antipsychotic medications has been shown to shorten QTc?

 

A.

Aripiprazole

 

B.

Risperidone

 

C.

Quetiapine

 

D.

Haloperidol

B

Most everyone has a firm conviction that they are male or female by which age range?

 

A.

0–1 years of age

 

B.

2–3 years of age

 

C.

4–5 years of age

 

D.

6–7 years of age

B

Methadone withdrawal usually begins how soon after the last dose?

 

A.

6–8 hours after the last dose

 

B.

8–12 hours after the last dose

 

C.

24 hours after the last dose

 

D.

1–3 days after the last dose

B

Which of the following is consistent with what is known regarding metabolism of alcohol?

 

A.

About 90 percent of absorbed alcohol is metabolized through oxidation in the liver, the remaining 10 percent is excreted unchanged by the kidneys and lungs.

 

B.

About 70 percent of absorbed alcohol is metabolized in the liver, 20 percent metabolized and excreted through the kidneys.

 

C.

The body can metabolize 50 mg/dL or 40% alcohol per hour.

 

D.

Alcohol is metabolized by alcohol hydrogenase (ADH) and aldehyde hydrogenase.

D

Which of the following neurotransmitters exerts an inhibitory effect of sexual function?

 

A.

Dopamine

 

B.

Oxytocin

 

C.

Serotonin

 

D.

Glutamate

C

Which of the following neurotransmitters increases libido?

 

A.

GABA

 

B.

Serotonin

 

C.

Oxytocin

 

D.

Dopamine

D

Which of the following is consistent with NP practice parameters when prescribing buprenorphine?

 

A.

NPs with full practice authority can prescribe and administer buprenorphine under their state NP license.

 

B.

As a qualified practitioner the NP simply needs to notify SAMHSA prior to prescribing or administering buprenorphine.

 

C.

The NP can provide buprenorphine to 300 patients per month.

 

D.

The NP is required to complete specific training to prescribe and dispense buprenorphine.

B

Which of the following are used to treat symptoms of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

 

A.

Dantrolene

 

B.

Bromocriptine

 

C.

Chlorpromazine

 

D.

A and B only

D

Which of the following is a guideline for prescribing legally?

 

A.

Prescribe the right medicine at the right times for the right indication for the right patient.

 

B.

If there is a practice protocol or guideline in the facility, follow it.

 

C.

If there is no facility-wide protocol for prescribing, the standard of care for prescribing may be assumed to be the Physician’s Desk Reference or Epocrates.

 

D.

All the above

D

A patient states that he continues to be late for work because he finds himself making multiple trips into the house to check that the stove is off prior to leaving, due to concerns about the stove being completely off. The ARNP recognizes this as which of the four major symptom patterns of OCD?

 

A.

Contamination

 

B.

Pathological doubt

 

C.

Intrusive thoughts

 

D.

Symmetry

B

Which of the following genotypes is consistent with being identified as genetically male?

 

A.

XX

 

B.

XY

 

C.

XA

 

D.

XM

B

Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for describing medical and surgical procedures and diagnostic services rendered by clinicians?

 

A.

HIPPA

 

B.

DSM-5

 

C.

CPT

 

D.

DRG

C

Nsytagmus, or marked slurring of speech and blackouts, are likely impairments at which of the following blood alcohol concentrations?

 

A.

30 – 80 mg/dL

 

B.

80 – 200 mg/dL

 

C.

200 – 300 mg/dL

 

D.

300 – 400 mg/dL

C

All of the following are one of the five major categories of third-party payers EXCEPT:

 

A.

Medicare/Medicaid

 

B.

Managed-care organizations (MCOs)

 

C.

Indemnity insurance companies

 

D.

Only A and B

D

Antipsychotic medications can cause metabolic symptom. Which of the following is not consistent with metabolic syndrome?

 

A.

Obesity

 

B.

Dyslipidemia

 

C.

Hypotension

 

D.

Impaired glucose tolerance

C

Which of the following are considered atypical features during a panic attack?

 

A.

Chest pain, shaking

 

B.

Dizziness, paresthesias

 

C.

Shortness of breath, chills

 

D.

Alterations in consciousness, Bladder dyscontrol

A

Data indicate which of the following regarding women drinking while pregnant or breast feeding?

 

A.

Women who are pregnant or are breast-feeding should not drink alcohol.

 

B.

Women who are pregnant should not drink alcohol but drinking alcohol while breast-feeding is not a risk to the baby.

 

C.

Women who are pregnant or breast-feeding can drink one alcoholic drink up to 3 times per week without concern for risk to the fetus or baby.

 

D.

Women who are pregnant or breastfeeding can safely drink occasionally without risk to the fetus.

A

A recurrent intrusive thought, feeling, idea, or sensation that causes severe distress to the individual is known as which of the following?

 

A.

A compulsion

 

B.

An obsession

 

C.

A specific phobia

 

D.

Normal

B

A diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension, often accompanied by autonomic symptoms which varies among persons is commonly known as which of the following?

 

A.

Fear

 

B.

Stress

 

C.

Normal anxiety

 

D.

Pathological anxiety

C

A patient who presents absent movement, with difficulty starting activities, flat affect, and avolition would be assessed as having which of the following?

 

A.

Dystonia

 

B.

Akathisia

 

C.

Akinesia

 

D.

Pseudo-Parkinson’s

C

According to HIPPA, which of the following must the NP share their NPI number with? Check all that apply.

 

A.

Health plans

 

B.

Other providers

 

C.

Any entity that may need it for billing purposes

 

D.

A and C only

A, B, and C

Clinical findings that may indicate abuse include which of the following? Select all that apply.

 

A.

Delay between onset of injury and seeking treatment.

 

B.

Explanation by the patient which is inconsistent with the type of injury.

 

C.

Psychological distress such as depression, anxiety, suicidal ideations and/or sleep disorder.

 

D.

Explanation by the patient which is inconsistent with the type of injury.

All

Which of the following is consistent with current epidemiology literature about gender and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

 

A.

Adult men are more likely to have OCD than adult women.

 

B.

Adult women are more likely to have OCD than adult men.

 

C.

Adolescent girls are more likely to have OCD than adolescent boys.

 

D.

Adult men and adult women are equally likely to have OCD.

D

Genital play in infants is considered which of the following?

 

A.

A sign of abuse

 

B.

A part of normal development

 

C.

Rarely ever seen

 

D.

An early sign of abnormal sexual development

B

A period of at least 6 months of recurrent and intense sexual arousal from cross-dressing that causes clinically significant distress or impairment is consistent with which of the following?

 

A.

Gender dysphoria

 

B.

Turner’s syndrome

 

C.

Transvestic Disorder

 

D.

Klinefelter’s syndrome

C

Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender identity is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Gender role behavior

 

B.

Gender discordance

 

C.

Gender nonconformity

 

D.

Internalized sexual prejudice

C

Which of the following is inconsistent with current knowledge about schizophrenia?

 

A.

Schizophrenia is one of the most common of the serious mental disorders.

 

B.

A diagnosis of schizophrenia is based entirely on the psychiatric history and mental status examination.

 

C.

Dopamine level is a laboratory test that assists in the diagnosis of schizophrenia.

 

D.

Schizophrenia likely comprises a group of disorders with heterogeneous etiologies and variable presentations.

C

A patient presents with delusions, disorganized thoughts, and speech, with poor self-care, all of which have persisted for the past 7 months. The APRN realizes this presentation is consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

 

A.

Schizophrenia

 

B.

Schizophreniform disorder

 

C.

Brief psychotic disorder

 

D.

Delusional disorder

A

A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting a least one month, without prominent hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to the delusional system, is consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

 

A.

Schizophrenia

 

B.

Delusional disorder

 

C.

Brief psychotic disorder

 

D.

Schizophreniform disorder.

B

A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled individuals 65 years and older who pay premiums and disabled individuals who qualify for Social Security disability payments and benefits is

 

A.

Medicare

 

B.

Medicaid

 

C.

Both A and B

 

D.

None of the above

A

An adaptive response to threat that prepares the organism for flight or fight is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Anxiety

 

B.

Specific phobia

 

C.

Generalized anxiety disorder

 

D.

None of the above

D

Which of the following initials would a psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner use to designate appropriate credentials?

 

A.

ANP-C

 

B.

CPNP

 

C.

CPNP-AC

 

D.

PMHNP-BC

D

Which of the following is used to treat Tardive Dyskinesia?

 

A.

Cogentin (benztropine)

 

B.

Artane (trihexyphenidyl)

 

C.

Catapress (clonidine)

 

D.

None of the above

B

Recurrent preoccupation with sexual urges and fantasies involving the act of being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Frotteurism

 

B.

Sexual Sadism

 

C.

Sexual Masochism*

 

D.

Other Specified Paraphilic Disorder

C

A condition which results from absence of second female sex chromosome (XO) and is associated with web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus, and infertility in known as which of the following?

 

A.

Hermaphroditism

 

B.

Turner’s syndrome

 

C.

Adrenogenital syndrome

 

D.

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

B

Non-bizarre delusions present for a least 1 month without other symptoms of schizophrenia or mood disorder warrants a diagnosis of which of the following?

 

A.

Schizoaffective disorder

 

B.

Delusional disorder

 

C.

Borderline personality disorder

 

D.

Brief psychotic disorder

B

Which of the following anticholinergic medications is used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms?

 

A.

Diphenhydramine

 

B.

Amantadine

 

C.

Propranolol

 

D.

Benztropine

A

Phencyclidine (PCP) and Ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by blocking which of the following receptors?

 

A.

GABA type receptors

 

B.

Serotonin receptors

 

C.

Dopamine receptors

 

D.

NMDA type receptors

D

Flashbacks in which the individual may act and feel as if the trauma were reoccurring represent which of the following clinical features of PTSD?

 

A.

Intrusion symptom

 

B.

Symptom of avoidance

 

C.

Symptom of increased autonomic arousal

 

D.

Derealization

C

A chronic disorder characterized by repetitive hair pulling, leading to variable hair loss that may be visible to others is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

 

B.

Impulse Control Disorder

 

C.

Trichotillomania

 

D.

Factitious Dermatitis

C

Telepsychiatrists adjust clinical care in which of the following ways to make it as personal as in- person care?

 

A.

Use fewer physical gestures as patients are not able to clearly appreciate them anyway.

 

B.

Check in with the patient to see how the patient is experiencing telepsychiatry.

 

C.

Insist every other appointment is an in-person appointment.

 

D.

Send things to the patient such as a box of tissues to facilitate the patient feeling cared for.

B

Which of the following is consistent with the epidemiology of schizophrenia in the United States?

  

The lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia is about 50 percent.

  

Schizophrenia is more prevalent in children than in adolescents.

  

Peak age of onset in men is 10 to 25 years of age.

  

Onset of schizophrenia before the age of 25 is extremely rare.

C

Which of the following services are usually excluded from both primary and secondary Medicare benefits?

 

A.

Medicare does not reimburse for the same services covered by VA benefits.

 

B.

Medicare does not reimburse for services covered under the Federal Black Lung program.

 

C.

Medicare does not reimburse for services related to workers compensation.

 

D.

A and B only

D

Which of the following neurological symptoms are consistent with inhalant use?

 

A.

Sensory illusions, distortions of body size

 

B.

Fearfulness, auditory and visual hallucinations

 

C.

Irritability, emotional lability, euphoria

 

D.

Slurred speech, decreased rate of speech, ataxia

B

Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with literature related to the prevalence of drinking alcohol with respect to ethnicity?

 

A.

Irish populations have higher rates of severe alcohol problems and higher rates of abstentions.

 

B.

Among religious denominations, Jewish populations have the highest proportion of people who consume alcohol but lower rates of alcohol dependence.

 

C.

More than 60 percent of men and women in Native American and Inuit populations have been alcohol dependent at some time.

 

D.

Caucasians have the lowest rate of alcohol use.

B

A patient who presents with the inability to remain still, with motor restlessness, would be assessed to have which of the following?

 

A.

Dystonia

 

B.

Akathisia

 

C.

Akinesia

 

D.

Tardive dyskinesia

D

Which of the following neurotransmitters is released with orgasm and is believed to reinforce pleasurable activities?

 

A.

GABA

 

B.

Serotonin

 

C.

Oxytocin

 

D.

Dopamine

D

Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting face, mouth, tongue, jaw in known as which of the following?

 

A.

Akathisia

 

B.

Dystonia

 

C.

Tardive dyskinesia

 

D.

Extrapyramidal side effects

B

A patient with a substance abuse disorder who does not meet the clinical criteria for hospitalization but who lacks sufficient social and vocational skills and lack substance-free social supports, is appropriate for which of the following levels of treatment?

 

A.

Residential treatment

 

B.

Partial hospitalizations

 

C.

Outpatient treatment

 

D.

All of the above

D

The Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia posits which of the following?

 

A.

Schizophrenia results from too much dopaminergic activity.

 

B.

Schizophrenia results from a deprivation of dopamine.

 

C.

Schizophrenia is not related to dopamine activity.

 

D.

None of the above

A

here are five “schedules” of controlled substances. Which schedule of controlled substances have no accepted medical use in the United States and have high abuse potential?

 

A.

Schedule 1

 

B.

Schedule 2

 

C.

Schedule 3

 

D.

Schedule 4

A

A continuous or intermittent craving for the substance to avoid a dysphoric state is known as which of the following concepts related to substance use and addictive disorders?

 

A.

Addiction

 

B.

Physical dependence

 

C.

Behavioral dependence

 

D.

Psychological dependence

B

The fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) was developed for which of the following purposes?

 

A.

To facilitate a seamless transition into immediate use by clinicians and insurers to maintain continuity of care

 

B.

To facilitate more precisely identifying and diagnosing mental disorders

 

C.

To eliminate need for ICD-9 codes

 

D.

A and B

D

As a Medicare Part B provider, you should do which of the following?

 

A.

Obtain billing information at the time service is rendered.

 

B.

Obtain payment at the time service is rendered.

 

C.

Submit an explanation of benefits (EOB) form with all appropriate MSP information to the designated carrier.

 

D.

A and C only

D

Which of the following is consistent with what is known about the epidemiology of anxiety?

 

A.

Men have a higher lifetime prevalence of anxiety than women.

 

B.

Women have a higher lifetime prevalence of anxiety than men.

 

C.

Men and women have equal lifetime prevalence.

 

D.

The lifetime prevalence of anxiety is not gender specific.

B

Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?

 

A.

This can be serious and life-threatening if castration is carried out without medical supervision.

 

B.

This is consistent with Transvestic Disorder.

 

C.

This is consistent with other specified paraphilic disorder.

 

D.

This is consistent with sexual masochism disorder.

C

ymptoms of opioid intoxication include which of the following?

 

A.

Altered mood

 

B.

Psychomotor retardation

 

C.

Impaired memory

 

D.

All of the above

D

Which of the following is not a common physical effect of cannabis?

 

A.

Mild tachycardia

 

B.

Mild bradycardia

 

C.

Orthostatic hypotension

 

D.

Dilation of the conjunctival blood vessels

D

Variations from norms in gender role behavior such as toy preferences, rough-and-tumble play, aggression, or playmate gender in known as which of the following?

 

A.

Gender discordance

 

B.

Gender role behavior

 

C.

Gender identity variance

 

D.

Childhood gender non-conformity

D

Which of the following is true about the fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)

 

A.

Combines the first three DSM-IV TR axes into one list that contains all mental disorders.

 

B.

While it combines the first three DMS-IV TR axes, personality disorders and medical disorders are still recorded separately, using the multi-axial framework.

 

C.

Psychosocial and environmental factors still need to be specified as part of the DSM-5 diagnosis.

 

D.

A and C only

D

Which of the following tests for individuals with schizophrenia is substantially helpful in diagnosis and treatment planning?

 

A.

Rorschach test

 

B.

Thematic apperception test

 

C.

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

 

D.

None or the above

A

Which of the following symptoms represent peripheral manifestations of anxiety?

 

A.

Hyperreflexia

 

B.

Palpitations

 

C.

Hyperhidrosis

 

D.

All of the above

D

Which of the following is the leading cause of premature death among people with schizophrenia?

 

A.

Cardiovascular Disease

 

B.

Substance Abuse

 

C.

Suicide

 

D.

Diabetes Mellitus

A

A conscious, standardized, recurrent behavior such as counting, checking, avoiding that interferes significantly with the person’s normal routine and functioning is known as which of the following?

 

A.

A compulsion

 

B.

An obsession

 

C.

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

 

D.

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

A patient with history of hypoglycemia reports feelings of fear, worry, and restlessness that has persisted over the past 6 months. The patient states these feelings are worse when glucose is low. The ARNP suspects the patient has which of the following diagnoses?

 

A.

Generalized anxiety disorder attributable to another medical condition

 

B.

Panic attacks attributable to another medication condition

 

C.

Hypoglycemia with anxiety

 

D.

None of the above

C

A psychotic condition that involves the sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, which lasts one day or more but less than 1 month with full return to the premorbid level of functioning is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Brief psychotic disorder

 

B.

Schizophreniform disorder

 

C.

Schizophrenia, first episode

 

D.

Schizophrenia, undifferentiated type

A

Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply.

 

A.

Age

 

B.

Rapid dose escalation

 

C.

Parental route of administration

 

D.

Higher potency typical antipsychotics

All

The fear of social situations, including situations that involve scrutiny or contact with strangers is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Specific phobia

 

B.

Social anxiety disorder

 

C.

Generalized anxiety disorder

 

D.

Avoidant personality disorder

B

The experience of anxiety has which of the following components?

 

A.

Increased self-awareness and fear

 

B.

Awareness of physiological sensations and shame

 

C.

Awareness of being nervous or frightened and shame

 

D.

Awareness of physiological sensations and awareness of being nervous or frightened

C

Which of the following patients would be appropriate for hospitalization for substance use disorder? Select all that apply.

 

A.

Patients who have a substance overdose who cannot be safely treated in an outpatient setting

 

B.

Patients who are at risk for severe or medically complicated withdrawal syndromes

 

C.

Patients who have a history of not benefiting from treatment in a less intensive setting

 

D.

A and B only

D

If a pregnancy begins while the woman is taking high doses of methadone and withdrawal is desired, during which trimester is this least hazardous?

 

A.

First trimester

 

B.

Second trimester

 

C.

Third trimester

 

D.

Withdrawal from methadone should never be done while the woman is pregnant.

C

A disorder characterized by acquiring and not discarding things that are deemed to be of little or no value, resulting in excessive clutter of living spaces is

 

A.

Specific Phobia

 

B.

Trichotillomania

 

C.

Hoarding Disorder

 

D.

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

C

Which of the following is true about use of CPT codes?

 

A.

CPT codes are optional, but often used to assist providers in billing.

 

B.

CPT codes are required by HIPPA to be used to record care by all health care professionals in the United States.

 

C.

CPT codes are an international classification of disorders.

 

D.

CPT codes are not required by non-governmental insurance companies.

B

A patient with a history of Alcohol Use Disorder presents with confusion, clouding of consciousness, myoclonus, oppositional hypertonia, fatigue, apathy irritability, anorexia, and insomnia. Symptoms do not improve with thiamine treatment. This presentation is consistent with which of the following?

 

A.

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

 

B.

Idiosyncratic alcohol intoxication

 

C.

Alcoholic pellagra encephalopathy

 

D.

Alcohol-induced Persisting Dementia

A

A term used to designate the behavioral patterns of family members who have been significantly affected by another family member’s substance use or addiction is which of the following?

 

A.

Denial

 

B.

Enabling

 

C.

Codependence

 

D.

Enmeshment

C

A rare life-threatening condition that can occur at any time in a patient receiving antipsychotic medication with symptoms which include increased creatinine phosphokinase, leukocytosis, hyperthermia, and tachycardia in known as which of the following?

 

A.

Tardive dyskinesia

 

B.

Pseudo-Parkinson’s

 

C.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

 

D.

Extrapyramidal side effects

C

Sexual stimuli or acts that are deviations from normal sexual behaviors but are necessary for some persons to experience arousal and orgasm are known as which of the following?

 

A.

Paraphilias

 

B.

Dyspareunium

 

C.

Orgasmic anhedonias

 

D.

Persistent genital arousal disorder

A

Which of the following are consistent with current data related to the prevalence of drinking alcohol?

 

A.

Men and women with higher education and income are less likely to drink alcohol.

 

B.

Men and women with higher education and income are more likely to drink alcohol.

 

C.

Men and women with lower education and higher income are more likely to drink alcohol.

 

D.

Education and income are not a factor in prevalence of drinking alcohol.

B

Recurrent, persistent genital pain occurring before, during, or after intercourse is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Vaginismus

 

B.

Dyspareunia

 

C.

Female orgasmic disorder

 

D.

Female sexual interest/arousal disorder

B

he diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific signs and symptoms resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Substance intoxication

 

B.

Substance withdrawal

 

C.

Substance use disorder

 

D.

Any of the above

C

The fear of or anxiety regarding places from which escape might be difficult is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Depression

 

B.

Panic disorder

 

C.

Agoraphobia

 

D.

Generalized anxiety disorder

C

he three major neurotransmitters associated with anxiety, based on animal studies and response to drug treatment, include which of the following?

 

A.

Glutamate, Norepinephrine, Serotonin

 

B.

GABA, Norepinephrine, Serotonin

 

C.

GABA, Dopamine, Glutamate

 

D.

Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Serotonin

D

Which of the following physiological symptoms are consistent with hallucinogen use? Select all that apply.

 

A.

Sweating

 

B.

Palpitations

 

C.

Pupillary dilation

 

D.

None of the above

A, B, and C

A type of schizophrenia in which the individual has a marked disturbance in motor function and may involve stupor, negativism, rigidity, excitement or posturing or mutism is

 

A.

Residual Type

 

B.

Catatonic Type

 

C.

Disorganized Type

 

D.

Undifferentiated Type

B

Neurochemical or neurophysiologic changes in the body that result from the repeated administration of a drug is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Cross-tolerance

 

B.

Neurotransformation

 

C.

Neuroadaptation

 

D.

Neurocognitive adjustment

A

An excessive anxiety and worry about several events or activities for most days during at least a 6 month period is known as which of the following?

 

A.

Specific phobia

 

B.

Social anxiety disorder

 

C.

Anxiety personality disorder

 

D.

Generalized anxiety disorder

D

Which of the following is not true about reimbursement from third party payers?

 

A.

Each type of third-party payer has its own reimbursement policies and fee schedules.

 

B.

Each type of third-party payer operates under a separate body of law.

 

C.

Not every third-party payer will pay every NP for every service.

 

D.

All third-party payers must reimburse NPs in the same manner that they reimburse physicians.

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